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Some queries for us to ponder over
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The period of Papal supremacy (“a time, and times, and the dividing of times” Daniel 7:25), appears in numerous places in various forms in the Bible.
Historic Adventism has taken this to mean the 1,260 years in Europe from 538 – 1798AD and applied it accordingly wherever the term, or its equivalent, has appeared, e.g.
“time, times and half a time” Daniel 12:7; Revelation 12:14;
“a thousand two hundred and threescore days” Revelation 12:6;
“forty-two months” Revelation 11:2; 13:5.
But why has the Spirit caused it to be written in these different ways?
Could it be that He has “flagged” it for us so that we may ask Him just what period is He thinking about, and if they are not the same then what could they mean in the context in which they are found?
Why is the beast of Revelation 13:2 part lion, part leopard, part bear?
Why are there “seven crowns” on the heads of the beast in Revelation 12:3, and yet on the horns of the beast in 13:1 there are ten? Associated with these is the question as to why there are NO crowns on the beast either on the heads or the horns in Revelation 17:3? (There are no crowns in Daniel 7 because the “little horn” is the subject of that prophecy, not world dominance.)
Why is the second beast of Revelation 13 (the dragon-speaking one who makes the “image”) described as having “two horns like [pretending to be] a lamb” (ineffective ones, but they are there!), and why is it often called “the lamb-like beast” when it is clearly a dragon and not a lamb?
Why, when there are two “beasts” in Revelation 13, and one of them makes a “copy (image)” of the other, do we not see that there are then three of them? The original, the second and then the copy? A “has been”, an “ineffective” one, and the real exposed one.
After progressing steadily through the history book of the future from Revelation chapter 6:1 to chapter 10 where the Son of God comes with the open book of Daniel (1840-44) and we are told that we must give another warning to the world (verse 11), why does The Revelation suddenly go back in history in chapter 11 and describe the French Revolution of 1793 – 1796, and then mention “the last trump” which heralds the Second Coming in verse 15?
We have been told that Revelation 12 starts a new line of prophecy.
“The line of prophecy in which these symbols are found begins with Revelation 12, with the dragon that sought to destroy Christ at His birth” (GC438). So this means that chapter 11 is the END of a line of prophecy. Maybe this will help?
When the Papacy arose in Europe it removed three of the ten horns (the nations of Europe) which were on the heads of the beast at that time (about 508-538AD). They are described as being “plucked up by the roots” in Daniel 7:8 which means in gardening terms that they were totally removed from the scene.
Then, AFTER the Papacy had ruled for 1,260 years as a leg of iron from 538AD to 1798 we have two feet and ten toes containing the new ingredient, clay, as the last participants in world history. Daniel 2:42-44.
How then can we say that the ten “horns” of Daniel 7 which became SEVEN BEFORE the Papacy ruled, can be the same as the TEN toes which come AFTER its reign?
Why is Greece positioned in the statue of Daniel 2 over the belly AND THIGHS (where the division of the body comes)?
In Revelation 12:6 the “woman” is said to flee into the wilderness (the places where few men dwell which were literally OUTSIDE of Europe) during the Papal dominancy, and stay there protected from the Roman Catholic system while being nourished by God.
But in 12:14 she is given extra speed (eagles’ wings) during one of the alternative time periods where she is protected from the direct attack from Satan. The provision of the “wings” should be a signal to us as an “extra”, similar to the change in terminology of the period.
Why do we NOT talk about the eighth head of the beast which is mentioned in Revelation 17?
Why do some among us continue to insist that we are forgiven and cleansed by the blood of the daily lamb being taken into the sanctuary when there is not one verse in the Bible which says this? Lamb’s blood is NEVER taken into the sanctuary building.
Why are we taught that the words “I die daily” apply to the rebirth when nature and human biology clearly teach that we can only be born once? “I die” is the OPPOSITE of “I live”.
Is there any distinction between “sinners” and “righteous” ones in the Bible?
Why is there a sanctuary in heaven? There is no blood there!!
How can Christ be said to have died “from the foundation of the world” (Revelation 13:8) when He died at Calvary 4,000 years later (give or take a few)?
Why have men invented the idea of an “invisible church” when there is no such term in the Bible?
The Roman Catholic system of indulgences states that when money is paid to the church the donor’s (or those of another if it is a gift from him), “past, present, and FUTURE” sins are forgiven. (GC 59.1 and 127.3)
The Protestant system of forgiveness is that Christ PAID for the sins of all men, past, present and future, when He died on the cross, and gives it to us as a gift.
Where is the difference?
Why are the people of the Laodicean church (Revelation 3:18) asked to purchase the white robes of righteousness? What can they PAY for them?
Why do we accept the phrase that “This place (nation, state, Church [with a capital “C”], etc. is a Christian system when that is an oxymoron?
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